If I bend down -3 to a third step it seems to be higher than a -2. If the first step a half, the second a whole note and the third another half how can it be higher given the -2. I’ll be the first person to admit music theory is not my strong point but the math does not seem to add up. Any explanations are welcome.
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Using a C harp to explain this:
The -2 is the note G.
The -3 is the note B, so -3’ is the note Bb (B flat), and -3" is the note A. So the -3’‘’ note is Ab (A flat, which is higher than G).
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Thanks Its starting to make sense. I which hitting each step consistently was as easy to explain. I only practice the first and second but have a long way to go to make them sound right.
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